Locke’s position on Absolute Monarchy and Slavery are inconsistent; he should accept both or neither (and so should reject both). (Note: don’t argue that “all men are created equal” and slavery are inconsistent. They obviously are. Thinking about Locke’s positions on Absolute Monarchy and Slavery address the same topic, but make you do it in a way that addresses more of his theory. Hint: you could also put this under the ‘death, consent, and property’ category).